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OMG UM0-401 Exam -

Free UM0-401 Sample Questions:

Q: 1 An example of a module exhibiting temporal cohesion is a combination of _____.
A. the control and management of two onboard hardware clocks
B. a 40 millisecond periodic navigation function and a 40 millisecond periodic display update function
C. several mathematical functions such as the sine, cosine, and arctangent functions
D. the vehicle speed and acceleration management functions
Answer: B

Q: 2 What two actions must occur in systems that use overlaying with a disk drive backing store? (Choose two.)
A. Only data is stored on the disk and code is stored in RAM.
B. A task executing in RAM can also execute code that is stored on the disk.
C. The operating system must prevent each task in RAM from accessing RAM outside the area reserved for it.
D. The code for the currently executing tasks is stored in RAM and that for the currently inactive tasks is stored on the disk, as managed by the operating system.
Answer: C, D

Q: 3 Which two statements about static memory allocation are true? (Choose two.)
A. Garbage collection is not required.
B. Memory fragmentation does not occur.
C. Memory allocation units are always the same fixed size.
D. Tasks must inform the run-time (e.g., operating system) the total amount of memory they will need before they begin requesting memory.
Answer: A, B

Q: 4 POSIX _____.
A. is the same as UNIX
B. is not designed for real-time systems
C. does not support asynchronous I/O
D. is an operating system interface standard
Answer: D

Q: 5 A scheduler runs tasks to completion instead of pre-empting tasks by time slicing or according to priority. What two actions will occur? (Choose two.)
A. Maximize the number of completed tasks per unit of time
B. Minimize the task scheduling and context switching overheads
C. Honor the commitment made to complete the task once it has begun executing
D. Share the processor time fairly among ready tasks
Answer: B, C

Q: 6 Which two statements are true of a monitor for synchronization? (Choose two.)
A. No concurrent access by tasks is allowed to any resource(s) within a monitor.
B. One monitor may encapsulate any number of resources and their synchronization functions.
C. If a requesting task enters a monitor but finds the resource isn't available, the task exits the monitor and is placed at the end of the monitor's external queue.
D. If two tasks are waiting in a monitor's queues for separate resources, when the task that has been accessing a resource finishes doing so, all the queues with waiting tasks are served round-robin.
Answer: A, B

Q: 7 Which two are POSIX real-time extensions? (Choose two.)
A. suspend / resume API's
B. direct cyclic executive support
C. task synchronization
D. priority-based preemptive task scheduling
Answer: C, D

Q: 8 Which two of these techniques would successfully avoid mutual exclusion deadlocks? (Choose two.)

A. Set up a circular dependency of tasks and resources
B. Allow a task's use of a resource to be pre-empted
C. Require tasks to acquire and use only one resource at a time
D. Require tasks to acquire resources in order of the tasks' priorities
Answer: B, C

Q: 9 The priority of a runnable task blocked on a resource request is temporarily changed to be the same as the priority of another task. Which two phrases could describe the new priority? (Choose two.)
A. The priority of the highest priority task
B. The priority of the lowest priority task which uses the resource
C. The priority of the higher priority task being blocked by the lower priority one
D. The ceiling priority of the resource on which the lower priority task is blocked
Answer: C, D

Q: 10 What two results occur by changing priorities dynamically? (Choose two.)
A. Reduces overhead
B. Increases overhead
C. May starve lower priority tasks
D. Avoids the need for priority queues
Answer: B, C

Q: 11 A representative benchmark differs from a synthetic benchmark in that a _____.
A. representative benchmark models a representative ideal application
B. synthetic benchmark precisely predicts specific application performance
C. representative benchmark models a real application's execution characteristics
D. synthetic benchmark must be developed by the same team that will build the application
Answer: C

Q: 12 Network protocol models are described as layers that _____.
A. permit separation of concerns of lower layers (e.g., hardware) from higher layers (e.g., application)
B. add increasing efficiency to higher layers (e.g., application) than lower layers (e.g., hardware)
C. are highly consistent in number and function among different protocols
D. provide efficient application access to network hardware addresses
Answer: A

Q: 13 The primary requirement for an RTOS is to _____.
A. maximize application speed and minimize memory utilization
B. enable fast control and data transfer to critical system devices
C. enable the application to meet both its functional and temporal requrements
D. permit the application to efficiently access all resources (e.g., I/O and memory)
Answer: C

Q: 14 A strictly conforming POSIX application _____.
A. uses all POSIX functions and standard options
B. uses only IEEE tested conforming operating systems
C. uses only POSIX required API's for its OS functionality
D. runs on all operating systems whose vendors claim POSIX conformance
Answer: C

Q: 15 Which statement accurately describes where a "mark" exists in the MDA model hierarchy?
A. as part of the PSM
B. as part of the PIM
C. as part of a transparent layer placed over a PIM
D. as part of a transparent layer placed over a PSM
Answer: C

Q: 16 In MDA practice, transformations from PIM to PSM _____. (Choose TWO.)
A. may be automated
B. are required for all systems
C. may be hand generated
D. always produce executable code
E. are always implemented in the QVT action language
Answer: A, C

Q: 17 What does the term "Platform independence" mean?
A. The application model can be moved to every other platform that is available.
B. The application model is independent of the features of any particular platform from some class of platforms.
C. The application is written in a high-level programming language such as Java or C++.
D. The application model is independent of the hardware platform where the application may be deployed.
Answer: B

Q: 18 What is an "implementation model"?
A. A PIM that provides all of the information needed to construct a system and put it into operation.
B. A model that includes C++ source code for all classes in the model.
C. A PSM that provides all of the information needed to construct a system and put it into operation.
D. A file that is executable on some computer system.
Answer: C

Q: 19 What two functions does the Model transformation specification provide? (Choose TWO.)
A. Always prescribes a one-to-one mapping from input model elements to output model elements.
B. Prescribes the transformations that merge a set of models to produce another set of models.
C. Are implemented using the OMG standard Model Transformation language.
D. Prescribes the transformation of one model to another model.
Answer: B, D

Q: 20 A metamodel is a _____.
A. set of UML templates for drawing system models
B. special kind of model that specifies a modeling language
C. collection of stereotypes and classes that define a set of architectural patterns
D. conceptual pattern for a class of application systems
Answer: B

Q: 21 Which example is NOT one of the MDA standard specification categories?
A. Service specification
B. Application specification
C. Data model specification
D. Language specification
Answer: B

Q: 22 In the MDA Foundation Model, a Transformation Record ___.
A. is one entry in a Transformation Specification
B. is the aggregation of all Transformation Specification Elements
C. provides a record of the inverse mapping transformation used to recover a model
D. traces groups of input model items to the groups of model items into which they are transformed
Answer: D

Q: 23 What is an "implementation" in MDA practice?
A. the complete set of models (PIM, PSM, Transformations) that express the design of a system
B. a PSM that contains all the information needed to construct a system and place it into operation
C. the executable binary code that is generated by the Implementation Transformation
D. the source code for the application
Answer: B

Q: 24 What are the two correct attributes of ExecutionEngine? (Choose two.)
A. Utilization
B. scheduler
C. loadAverage
D. numThreads
Answer: A, B

Q: 25 In the UML Profile for Schedulability, Performance, and Time, usage demand is described as _____.
A. an event occurrence that causes a resource usage
B. resource usages, with corresponding densities, and the set of resource instances that are used by resource usages
C. QoS values of a system associated with a specific resource usage
D. a pattern describing how clients use resources and services
Answer: A

Q: 26 What is the name of the ActiveResource that is responsible for executing actions in the system?
A. Agent
B. Thread
C. Engine
D. ConcurrentUnit
Answer: D

Q: 27 What is the maximum absolute time difference in relative frequencies of the clock and its reference clock between two successive time ticks?
A. drift
B. offset
C. maximal value
D. maximum stability
Answer: A

Q: 28 What is the schedulable resource that an action executes on?
A. Host
B. Scheduler
C. SResource
D. Scheduling job
Answer: A

Q: 29 Dynamic scheduling includes utility based or _____ scheduling.
A. value based
B. variable based
C. economic based
D. continuous based
Answer: A

Q: 30 In the Dynamic Usage Model, the usage of resources is represented by a scenario instance. What is an ordered series of steps called?
A. Action
B. ActionItem
C. ActionInstance
D. ActionExecution
Answer: D

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