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SNIA S10-101 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free S10-101 Sample Questions:

Q: 1 What is a characteristic of synchronous remote replication?
A. Source is minutes ahead of the remote replication.
B. Source buffers the data and sends it depending on a cycle time.
C. Source and remote replication always have identical data.
D. Synchronous replication only used for extended distances.
Answer: C

Q: 2 Which statement defines Serial-Attached SCSI (SAS) and SATA connectivity?
A. SAS storage devices can plug into SATA backplanes.
B. SATA storage devices can not plug into SAS backplanes.
C. SAS backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
D. SATA backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
Answer: C

Q: 3 You no longer have any port availability in the company's switch fabric. There is a decommissioned switch available. When it is installed, there is a segmentation error. What is the
cause of the problem?
A. The wrong cable type was used to connect the switches.
B. The cable was connected into the wrong port on the target switch.
C. A duplicate zone name exists on the switch you are adding.
D. The domain priority is inconsistent.
Answer: C

Q: 4 From a business perspective a well managed archive is particularly important in which situation?
A. in the event of loss of power at the primary data center
B. when an administrator accidentally formats the wrong file system
C. in the event of litigation
D. when a user accidentally deletes an important email
Answer: C

Q: 5 What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (Choose two.)
A. Uses existing Ethernet technologies.
B. Supports up to 126 devices.
C. Lowers propagation delay.
D. Leverages system administrator knowledge.
Answer: A, D

Q: 6 What is the basic order of a snapshot creation process?
A. flush file system, take snapshot, backup the volume, release the application
B. flush file system, quiesce the application, take snapshot, backup the volume
C. quiesce the application, flush file system, take snapshot, backup the volume
D. flush file system, quiesce the application, flush the file system, take snapshot, backup the volume
Answer: C

Q: 7 What might be considered the most important criteria when designing an OLTP implementation for a financial services customer?
A. data integrity
B. data redundancy
C. disk latency of less than 15ms
D. high availability
Answer: A

Q: 8 Which two RAID types use parity for data protection? (Choose two.)
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
E. RAID 10
Answer: C, D

Q: 9 Which two have World Wide Names? (Choose two.)
A. switches
B. disk arrays
C. zone sets
D. servers
E. HBAs
Answer: A, E

Q: 10 What is the maximum distance of a 50-micrometer multimode fiber with a 850nm shortwave laser at 1 Gbps?
A. 500 meters
B. 300 meters
C. 150 meters
D. 70 meters
Answer: A

Q: 11 Common enterprise tape cartridges such as LTO or DLT contain which components?
A. leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, access door
B. leader pin, read/write head assembly, supply reel, access door
C. leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, pickup reel
D. leader pin, read/write head assembly, supply reel, pickup reel
Answer: A

Q: 12 What is the function of the "head" on the disk drive?
A. It is used to read or write data onto the disk media.
B. It is used to seek to the area where the requested data is located.
C. It is where the data is stored or retrieved.
D. It is a standard unit of measurement on the disk media.
Answer: A

Q: 13 Which tier provides highest availability and highest performance?
A. tier 4
B. tier 3
C. tier 2
D. tier 1
Answer: D

Q: 14 What is the maximum throughput of a 4 phy SAS wide port that has 3 Gbps links?
A. 300 MBps
B. 1200 MBps
C. 1800 MBps
D. 2400 MBps
Answer: D

Q: 15 What is a common type of symmetric key ciphering when securing stored information?
A. DEC
B. AES
C. Turing
D. SSL
Answer: B

Q: 16 What describes RAID 0?
A. mirroring
B. parallel access with parity
C. striping
D. independent access with interleaved parity
Answer: C

Q: 17 Which two are common characteristics of DAS? (Choose two.)
A. direct access to data is available from single server
B. only available through SCSI/SAS interfaces
C. storage capacity is captive to a single server
D. storage is accessible by any host anywhere on the network
E. attached to the host computer by a switch
Answer: A, C

Q: 18 Which hardware component provides the interface between the storage network and the server backplane?
A. gigabit link module
B. interposer card
C. inter-switch link
D. host bus adapter
Answer: D

Q: 19 What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (Choose two.)
A. greater security exposure
B. lower cost infrastructure
C. can use existing network management tools
D. lower CPU overhead
Answer: B, C

Q: 20 Which is considered tier 2 storage in a datacenter with three (3) storage tiers?
A. tape vault
B. Fibre Channel disk array with dual controllers
C. Nearline storage
D. intelligent storage virtualization
Answer: C

Q: 21 What are two advantages of SAN when compared to NAS? (Choose two.)
A. No retraining is required to manage.
B. Servers and storage can scale independently.
C. Provides file and object level access.
D. Enables audit trails for change management.
E. Provides block level access.
Answer: B, E

Q: 22 What are two protocol options for transporting Fibre Channel over an IP network? (Choose two.)
A. FCIP
B. FCAL
C. SES
D. iSNS
E. iFCP
Answer: A, E

Q: 23 What requires the user to correctly install electrical terminators on both ends of the bus?
A. Sbus
B. SCSI bus
C. PCI bus
D. Fibre Channel
Answer: B

Q: 24 What happens when a SATA disk drive which has the ability to operate at 1.5 and 3.0 Gbps is plugged into a SAS expander port with the ability to operate at 3.0 and 6.0 Gbps?
A. The SATA device will not operate.
B. The SATA drive will power down.
C. The SAS expander port shuts down and reports an error to the management application layer using the SMP protocol.
D. The SAS expander port and SATA device will automatically perform speed negotiation and run at 3.0 Gbps.
Answer: D

Q: 25 Your existing tape infrastructure uses block level technology. You need to restore a set of files but not the entire volume. How can this be accomplished without compromising the existing data on the server?
A. Backup the server; restore the original volume; then restore the recent backup.
B. Restore the tape over the existing volume. Only extra files that do not exist will be added.
C. Build out a new server that mimics the existing server and restore the files to that newly created server.
D. Restore to an alternate location such as a newly allocated drive. Copy the files you need onto the volume.
Answer: D

Q: 26 Which RAID level is the most commonly used for file servers, application servers, Web servers, databases, and other transaction-oriented applications?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 3
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 5
Answer: D

Q: 27 Which utility typically enables abstraction of storage within a server?
A. switch zoning
B. Logical Volume Manager (LVM)
C. SAN appliance
D. SMI-S monitoring tool
Answer: B

Q: 28 Your current backup solution includes a backup server and six tape drives within a tape library. The routers are connected to the SAN and the servers are zoned on the SAN to see
the array. The server sends a set of commands to the tape routers causing the routers to talk directly to the volumes and copy them to the tape drives. Which backup infrastructure type would describe this process?
A. D2D (disk-to-disk)
B. 3PC (3rd party copy)
C. SSO (shared storage option)
D. D2R2T (disk-to-router-to-tape)
Answer: B

Q: 29 Which security method is used to insure that a particular host only has access to a particular LUN?
A. port binding
B. hard zoning
C. soft zoning
D. LUN masking
Answer: D

Q: 30 What is one advantage of hardware RAID controllers?
A. Volume management is performed by the host.
B. Volume management is performed by the switch.
C. Parity calculation by the server and cache memory on the RAID controller increases read and write performance.
D. Dedicated cache memory increases server write performance.
Answer: D


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