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IIA IIA-CIA-Part2 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free IIA-CIA-Part2 Sample Questions:

Q: 1
Which of the following factors is least essential to a successful control self-assessment workshop?
A. Voting technology.
B. Facilitation training.
C. Prior planning.
D. Group dynamics.
Answer: A

Q: 2
Which of the following would not be characteristic of control self-assessment implemented by an audit department?
A. An auditor usually facilitates the discussion during the workshop phase while another records comments for subsequent use.
B. Auditors and business-unit employees work as a team.
C. Auditors perform traditional audit tests to identify control weaknesses.
D. Participants discuss the control weaknesses that hinder the achievement of objectives.
Answer: C

Q: 3
Which of the following is an advantage of control self-assessment (CSA) over conventional auditing techniques?
A. CSA evaluates control activities and human resource practices.
B. CSA provides assurance about whether business objectives will be met.
C. CSA facilitates obtaining input from subject-matter experts efficiently.
D. CSA provides assurance that action will be taken to improve deficiencies.
Answer: C

Q: 4
During which of the following systems development stages would it be most useful for an internal auditor to be involved?
A. Coding and testing.
B. User acceptance and post-implementation.
C. Design and implementation.
D. Testing and user acceptance.
Answer: C

Q: 5
An auditor decides to vouch a sample of ledger entries back to their original documentation. In terms of whether all transactions had been recorded, this test would be:
A. Relevant to the completeness objective.
B. Irrelevant to the completeness objective.
C. A more timely test of completeness than evidence from interviews.
D. A more biased test of completeness than evidence from interviews.
Answer: B

Q: 6
All of the following tools are employed to control large-scale projects except:
A. Program evaluation and review technique (PERT).
B. Critical path method.
C. Statistical process control.
D. Gantt charts.
Answer: C

Q: 7
An audit of an organization's claims department determined that a large number of duplicate payments had been issued due to problems in the claims processing system. During the exit conference, the vice president of the claims department informed the auditors that attempts to recover the duplicate payments would be initiated immediately and that the claims processing system would be enhanced within six months to correct the problems. Based on this response, the chief audit executive should:
A. Adjust the scope of the next regularly scheduled audit to assess controls within the claims processing system.
B. Discuss the findings with the audit committee and ask the committee to determine the appropriate follow-up action.
C. Schedule a follow-up engagement within six months to assess the status of corrective action.
D. Monitor the status of corrective action and schedule a follow-up engagement when appropriate.
Answer: D

Q: 8
An audit of a company's accounts payable found that the individuals responsible for maintaining the vendor master file could also enter vendor invoices into the accounts payable system. During the exit conference, management agreed to correct this problem. When performing a follow-up engagement of accounts payable, the auditor should expect to find that management has:
A. Transferred the individuals who maintained the vendor master file to another department to ensure that responsibilities are appropriately segregated.
B. Compared the vendor and employee master files to determine if any unauthorized vendors have been added to the vendor master file.
C. Changed the access control system to prevent employees from both entering invoices and approving payments.
D. Modified the accounts payable system to prevent individuals who maintain the vendor master file from entering invoices.
Answer: D

Q: 9
What is the primary factor that determines the depth and breadth of audit follow-up?
A. The engagement client's written response to the audit findings.
B. The auditor's assessment of risk associated with the audit findings.
C. The auditor's assessment of personnel responsible for correcting audit findings.
D. The availability of audit personnel and financial resources.
Answer: B

Q: 10
At the conclusion of an audit of an organization's treasury department, a report was issued to the treasurer, chief financial officer, president, and board. Because of the sensitivity of some findings, a follow-up review was performed. The auditor should provide the report of follow-up findings to the:
I.
Treasurer.
II.
Chief financial officer.
III.
President.
IV.
Board.
A. I and II only.
B. III and IV only.
C. I, II, and III only.
D. I, II, III, and IV.
Answer: D

Q: 11
When interrogating an individual who is suspected of fraud, it is appropriate to:
A. Tell the individual that any information disclosed in the interrogation will not be disclosed outside of the company.
B. Start the interview with questions to which the interviewer already knows the answer.
C. Discontinue questioning once the individual has confessed to the fraud.
D. Prepare a list of questions prior to the interrogation and strictly adhere to the list.
Answer: B

Q: 12
Questions used to interrogate individuals suspected of fraud should:
A. Adhere to a predetermined order.
B. Cover more than one subject or topic.
C. Move from general to specific.
D. Direct the individual to a desired answer.
Answer: C

Q: 13
A chief audit executive (CAE) suspects that several employees have used desktop computers for personal gain. In conducting an investigation, the primary reason that the CAE would choose to engage a forensic information systems auditor rather than using the organization's information systems auditor is that a forensic information systems auditor would possess:
A. Knowledge of the computing system that would enable a more comprehensive assessment of the computer use and abuse.
B. Knowledge of what constitutes evidence acceptable in a court of law.
C. Superior analytical skills that would facilitate the identification of computer abuse.
D. Superior documentation and organization skills that would facilitate in the presentation of findings to senior management and the board.
Answer: B

Q: 14
While conducting a payroll audit, an internal auditor in a large government organization found inadequate segregation in the duties assigned to the assistant director of personnel. When the auditor explained the risk of fraud, the assistant director became upset, terminated the interview, and threatened to sue the organization for defamation of character if the audit engagement was not curtailed. The auditor discussed the situation with the chief audit executive (CAE). The CAE should then:
A. Curtail the audit engagement to avoid potential legal action.
B. Provide a report to senior management recommending a fraud investigation.
C. Continue the original engagement program as planned but include a comment about the assistant director's reaction in the engagement final communication.
D. Add additional testing to determine whether other indicators of fraud exist.
Answer: D

Q: 15
Which of the following is the most appropriate step for the chief audit executive to take in order to avoid defamation of character of the principal suspect in a fraud investigation?
A. Restrict the use of potentially damaging words to privileged reports or discussions.
B. Label all workpapers, reports, and correspondence of the internal audit activity as private.
C. Restrict discussions of the fraud to members of management who express an interest in the investigation.
D. Destroy all investigation workpapers and reports if the fraud cannot be proven.
Answer: A

Q: 16
The scope of a consulting engagement performed by internal auditors should:
A. Be sufficient to address the objectives agreed upon with the client.
B. Exclude areas that might be the subject of subsequent assurance engagements.
C. Be limited to activities within the current operating period.
D. Be preapproved in conjunction with the annual plan of consulting engagements.
Answer: A

Q: 17
The following are potential sources of evidence regarding the effectiveness of a division's total quality management program. The least persuasive evidence would be a comparison of:
A. Employee morale before and after program implementation.
B. Scrap and rework costs before and after program implementation.
C. Customer returns before and after program implementation.
D. Manufacturing and distribution costs per unit before and after program implementation.
Answer: A

Q: 18
A chief audit executive (CAE) of a major retailer has engaged an independent firm of information security specialists to perform specialized internal audit activities. The CAE can rely on the specialists' work only if it is:
A. Performed in accordance with the terms of the contract.
B. Carried out in accordance with the Standards.
C. Performed under the supervision of the information technology department.
D. Carried out using standard review procedures for retailers.
Answer: B

Q: 19
When conducting a performance appraisal of an internal auditor who has been a below-average performer, it is not appropriate to:
A. Notify the internal auditor of the upcoming appraisal several days in advance.
B. Use objective, impartial language.
C. Use generalizations.
D. Document the appraisal.
Answer: C

Q: 20
An organization contracted a third party to construct a new facility that was estimated to cost $25 million. Which of the following is the most pertinent reason for the organization to audit the contractor's records?
A. The contract includes a right-to-audit clause.
B. The contractor will be paid on a cost-plus basis.
C. The estimated cost is high.
D. The contractor has subcontracted much of the work.
Answer: B


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