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HP HP0-655 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free HP0-655 Sample Questions:

Q: 1 You are going to perform an "eject" Logical Device Operation for a tape residing in a library. When will this operation fail?
A. if all drives are busy
B. if the mailslot is full
C. if the media is in a free pool
D. if the media is protected
Answer: B

Q: 2 You are running Data Protector through a firewall. The Cell Manager is installed in the intranet. Which configuration is supported?
A. the Cell Console located within the DMZ
B. the Manager of Managers Console located within the DMZ
C. the Disk Agent located within the DMZ
D. the Disk Agent located within the DMZ and the Media Agent located within the intranet
Answer: C

Q: 3 By default, which user right is granted to the group named user?
A. Monitor
B. Start Backup
C. Start Restore
D. Media Configuration
Answer: C

Q: 4 Data Protector provides an event driven notification system. Which notification methods are available? Select TWO.
A. filter
B. email
C. paging
D. broadcast
E. store to database
Answer: B, D

Q: 5 Which backups are supported by Data Protector? Select THREE.
A. Virtual backup
B. NDMP backup
C. Direct SAN backup
D. Split media backup
E. Online application backup
Answer: B, C, E

Q: 6 If you experience problems with tape library devices, which Data Protector command can be used to check the library operations?
A. uma
B. omnihealthcheck
C. chgr-debug
D. ioscan
Answer: A

Q: 7 During initial installation, which tool helps predict future Data Protector internal database (IDB) size?
A. capacity forecast report
B. media management report
C. capacity planning spreadsheet
D. database growth calculator
Answer: C

Q: 8 When performing media operations with Data Protector, the process of faulting is used as a further means of protection. What is the purpose of faulting locations?
A. to provide information about the media condition
B. to provide information about all media currently mounted to tape drives
C. to provide additional information about the media location within a tape library
D. to provide additional information about the off-site location of media exported from a library
Answer: D

Q: 9 What may happen if Data Protector CANNOT find a protected version of the object on which the incremental backup is to be based?
A. The backup will fail.
B. A mount request will be issued.
C. Data Protector will start a full backup.
D. Data Protector will continue with incremental 1.
Answer: C

Q: 10 Which information about SAN devices can Data Protector store internally to enable automatic discovery of changed SCSI addresses and avoid Windows device persistency problems?
A. type
B. name
C. SCSI ID
D. serial number
Answer: D

Q: 11 How can you prevent multiple hosts from simultaneously attempting to utilize a device in one Data Protector cell?
A. logical lock
B. device lock
C. lock names
D. physical lock
Answer: C

Q: 12 What could be reasons for an unexpected mount request? Select TWO.
A. the tape drive is busy
B. the media is not appendable
C. no previous full backup was run
D. the media is physically write protected
E. the media management database is full
Answer: B, D

Q: 13 Which CLI command creates the File Library device?
A. omnifilelib
B. omnifiledev
C. omniupload
D. omnidownload
Answer: C

Q: 14 Which situation would require disaster recovery procedures rather than a standard restore? Select TWO.
A. client database corruption
B. client configuration corruption
C. failure/loss of the client's tape device
D. inconsistency of the Data Protector IDB
E. corruption/loss of the Data Protector IDB
Answer: B, E

Q: 15 When performing a manual configuration using the command line, you can create a new logical device by defining it in a temporary file in the devices directory. How is the Media Management database updated with this information?
A. automatically when the device schedule is invoked
B. with the omnidownload command
C. with the omniupload command
D. with the omniupdate command
Answer: C

Q: 16 To use the same device with different media pools, what must be created?
A. a new media agent
B. a media specification
C. backup specification
D. media rotation policies
Answer: C

Q: 17 What does the user right "Clients Configuration" allow?
A. add, delete, and modify assigned groups
B. view, backup, and restore assigned systems
C. create, configure, and delete backups and restores
D. perform installation and updates of assigned systems
Answer: D

Q: 18 When configuring a backup, when does Static Device Allocation occur?
A. when the backup specification is targeted at a specific physical device
B. when each object defined in the backup specification is targeted at a specific logical device
C. when each object defined in the backup specification is targeted at a specific physical device
D. when several objects defined in the backup specification are targeted at several logical devices
Answer: B

Q: 19 By default, which file is the Data Protector Database recovery file?
A. obdb.dat
B. obrindex.dat
C. obdatafiles.dat
D. obdbrecovery.dat
Answer: B

Q: 20 Which section of the backup specification contains the information about the backup target drives?
A. objects
B. devices
C. media pools
D. backup types
Answer: B

Q: 21 The Data Protector scheduler allows for scheduling of which entity?
A. media agent
B. logical device
C. backup object
D. backup session
E. backup specification
Answer: E

Q: 22 Which Data Protector feature simplifies shared access of several hosts to a physical device?
A. redundant paths
B. multipath devices
C. device locking mechanism
D. multiple device connections
Answer: B

Q: 23 The Data Protector tape format is comprised of which sections?
A. File Mark, Data Blocks, and End of Data
B. Segments, File Mark, and Catalog Information
C. Tape Header, Media Label, and Fast Tape Positioning
D. Tape Header, Data Segments, and Catalog Information
Answer: D

Q: 24 Data Protector provides simplified access to library management consoles. What does this mean?
A. Library management is simplified and and can be done without special knowledge.
B. Access to the library management console interface does not require a login password.
C. The library management console interface can automatically be loaded in a web browser.
D. Management of multiple libraries can be performed from a single shared management console.
Answer: C

Q: 25 What is included in a Logical Device configuration? Select TWO.
A. device options
B. overwrite protection levels
C. physical device properties
D. media pool characteristics
E. automated media operations
Answer: A, C

Q: 26 On Windows, from which backup object would you restore the registry?
A. from the vbfs object
B. from the winfs object
C. from the omnidb object
D. from the configuration object
Answer: D

Q: 27 Which information, besides Other, is listed in the System Dynamics report option of the internal database?
A. size of the IDB extension files
B. growth ratio of IDB filenames
C. number of filenames waiting to be purged
D. number of filenames purged during the last maintenance cycle
Answer: B

Q: 28 In the Data Protector GUI "Users" context with default setting applied, a user on a remote system may be configured into one of three roles. What are these roles? Select THREE.
A. admin
B. root
C. guest
D. operator
E. java
F. user
Answer: A, D, F

Q: 29 Which steps are performed when backup preview is executed? Select TWO.
A. writes test data to the tape
B. starts the disk agent and media agent
C. performs a "dummy run" of the backup
D. writes session information to the database
E. connects the disk agent to the media agent
Answer: B, C


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