Free Cheat-test Samples and Demo Questions Download
Adobe exams Adobe
Apple exams Apple
Avaya exams Avaya
Check Point exams Check Point
Cisco exams Cisco
Citrix exams Citrix
CIW exams CIW
CompTIA exams CompTIA
CWNP exams CWNP
EC-Council exams EC-Council
EMC exams EMC
Exin exams Exin
Fortinet exams Fortinet
GIAC exams GIAC
Hitachi exams Hitachi
HP exams HP
IBM exams IBM
Isaca exams Isaca
ISC exams ISC
ISEB exams ISEB
Juniper exams Juniper
LPI exams LPI
McAfee exams McAfee
Microsoft exams Microsoft
Oracle exams Oracle
PMI exams PMI
Riverbed exams Riverbed
SNIA exams SAP
Sun exams SAS
Symantec exams Symantec
VMware exams VMware
All certification exams

HP HP0-512 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free HP0-512 Sample Questions:

Q: 1. The suspend command is issued agains which resource?

A. copy sets
B. DR groups
C. source Vdisk
D. managed sets

Answer: B

Q: 2. Which continuous Access EVA SAN extension technology provides the ability to expand capacity of a network without adding hardware?

A. ATM
B. FCIP
C. WDM
D. SONET

Answer: C

Q: 3. A site loses intersite links for an extended period of time. When the links come back, all DR groups are merging. This causes a significant host performance issue. What are two recommended procedures used to enhance host I/O performance? (Select two.)

A. issue a suspend command against some of the less critical Vdisks
B. issue a suspend command against some of the less critical copy sets
C. issue a suspend command against some of the less critical DR Groups
D. issue a suspend command against some of the less critical managed sets

Answer: C, D

Q: 4. You are configuring a high-availability Continuous Access EVA solution using an EVA 8000 storage system. How should each port of the controllers be connected?

A. There are no specific cabling configuration requirements in Continuous Access EVA configurations.
B. Port 1 and 2 on the top controller should be connected to the same fabric as Port 1 and 2 on the lower controller.
C. Port 1 and 3 on the top controller should be connected to the same fabric as Port 1 and 3 on the lower controller.
D. Port 2 and 4 on the top controller should be connected to a different fabric than Port 2 and 4 on the lower controller.
E. Port 3 and 4 on the top controller should be connected to the same fabric as Port 3 and 4 on the lower controller.

Answer: C

Q: 5. Which two statements about Business Copy (BC) are true? (Select two.)

A. BC is limited to 16 EVA storage systems.
B. BC host are automatically discovered by RSM.
C. BC supports an unlimited number of EVA storage systems.
D. BC requires a storage system to hold a raw capacity based license.
E. BC supports an unlimited number of servers running the RSM host agent.

Answer: A, E

Q: 6. What is the Continuous Access EVA license based on?

A. per storage array
B. amount of replicated sotrage capacity of the source array
C. amount of replicated sotrage capacity of the destination array
D. amount of replicated sotrage capacity of source and destination arrays

Answer: D

Q: 7. What are three characteristics of the suspend command? (Select three.)

A. initiates logging
B. cannot be used in failsafe mode
C. is issued on the source system only
D. stops host I/O to source and destination Vdisks
E. is issued either on the source or destination system

Answer: A, B, C

Q: 8. Which two statements about managed sets are true? (Select two.)

A. DR groups may belong to only one managed set.
B. Managed sets can be created from Command View.
C. Managed sets can be created from Replication Solutions Manager.
D. Managed sets may include DR groups from multiple storage systems.
E. Managed sets may include DR groups only from a single storage system.

Answer: C, D

Q: 9. What are two possible results of issuing a resume command? (Select two.)

A. normalization of the copy set
B. merging of the log to the destination Vdisk
C. DR group goes into a failsafe-locked condition
D. removal of the destination Vdisk from the copy set

Answer: A, B

Q: 10. Why does HP recommend synchronous replication mode over asynchronous replication mode?

A. Synchronous replication mode saturates at a lower rate.
B. Synchronous replication mode provides better data consistency.
C. Synchronous replication write order is guaranteed using normalization.
D. Synchronous replication mode responds faster when the I/O rate is below saturation.

Answer: B

Q: 11. In Continuous Access EVA, which statement is true?

A. Synchronous mode means an I/O acknowledgement is sent to the host after data is written to the source Vdisk and destination Vdisk.
B. Asynchronous mode means an I/O acknowledgement is sent to the host after data is written to the source Vdisk and destination Vdisk.
C. Synchronous mode means an I/O acknowledgement is sent to the host after data is written to the source EVA cache and destination EVA cache.
D. Asynchronous mode means an I/O acknowledgement is sent to the host after data is written to the source EVA cache and destination EVA cache.

Answer: C

Q: 12. What configuration information does clicking Tools Export Replication Solutions Manager Database on Replication Solutions Manager capture?

A. all array configuration information for participating storage subsystems
B. the Replication Solutions Manager configuration for the array on which it is executed
C. all Continuous Access configuration information for participating storage subsystems
D. the Replication Solutions Manager configuration for all participating storage subsystems

Answer: D

Q: 13. What is the maximum one-way intersite latency for Continuous Access EVA?

A. 10 us
B. 10 ms
C. 100 us
D. 100 ms

Answer: D

Q: 14. Which replication method provides highest redundancy within Business Copy?

A. snapclone from a parent disk group
B. snapclone from a non parent disk group
C. fully allocated snapshot from a parent disk group
D. demand allocated snap from a non parent disk group

Answer: B

Q: 15. How should Vdisks for Continuous Access be preferred?

A. all Vdisks in the DR group to the same controller
B. all Vdisks in the same disk group to the same controller
C. split the Vdisk in the EVA between the controllers for load balancing
D. split the Vdisk in the DR group between the controllers for load balancing

Answer: A

Q: 16. What are two purposes of the Continuous Access EVA Replication Performance Estimator? (Select two.)

A. evaluates Vdisk size
B. evaluates packet size
C. evaluates disk group size
D. evaluates intersite distance
E. evaluates log disk utilization

Answer: B, D

Q: 17. Which licenses are required to build up a maximum cascaded Continuous Access EVA environment for 1.4 TB replicated VRAID5 data on 300GB disks using a single protection level?

A. one RSM licenses, four CA 1TB license, six Command View EVA 1TB licenses
B. two RSM licenses, six CA 1TB licenses, nine Command View EVA 1TB licenses
C. two Business Copy 1TB licenses, six CA 1TB licenses, nine Command View EVA 1TB licenses
D. four Business Copy 1TB licenses, four CA 1TB licenses, six Command View EVA 1TB licenses

Answer: C
Q: 18. Which three would result in a Replication Solutions Manager event? (Select three.)

A. Vdisk failure
B. Vdisk creation
C. job completion
D. disk group created
E. transitioned to logging state

Answer: A, C, E

Q: 19. Which statement is accurate when describing managed sets?

A. It can failover similar resources in one action.
B. It can failover different resources in one action.
C. It can failover resources of the same type in one action.
D. It can failover resources only residing in one manage set.

Answer: C

Q: 20. Which three are user interfaces for Continuous Access EVA? (Select three.)

A. Command View EVA
B. Command View EVA CLI
C. Replication Solutions Manager
D. Storage System Scripting Utility
E. Storage Essentials Enterprise Edition

Answer: A, C, D

Q: 21. For the Continuous Access EVA, which two statements are true for DR group normal mode? (Select two.)

A. It assures best performance.
B. It ensures the highest data integrity
C. It is the default mode for a DR group.
D. It stops I/O if the destination is unavailable.
E. It is also referred to as failsafe-disabled mode.

Answer: C, E

Q: 22. Replication Solutions Manager receives events applicable to user activities directly from ______.

A. HSV controllers
B. Command View EVA
C. Systems Insight Manager
D. Storage Management Server Notification Utility

Answer: A

Q: 23. Which DR group receives the Continuous Access failover command?

A. the source DR group only
B. the destination DR group only
C. both the source and destination DR groups
D. neither the destination, nor the source DR groups

Answer: B

Q: 24. What are three attributes of a log disk? (Select three.)

A. Vraid1
B. Vraid5
C. allocates space upon demand
D. can reside within any disk group
E. preallocates space equal to 75% of the copy set
F. must reside within the same disk group as the copy set

Answer: A, C, D

Q: 25. When is a log disk considered full? (Select four.)

A. when the log disk reaches 1TB
B. when the log disk reaches 2TB
C. when no free space remains in the log disk’s disk group
D. when the log disk reaches the user specified log disk size
E. when the size of the log disk exceeds the capacity of the DR group
F. when the size of the log disk exceeds the capacity of the largest Vdisk

Answer: B, C, D, E


© 2014 Cheat-Test.com, All Rights Reserved