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CompTIA HIT-001 Exam -

Free HIT-001 Sample Questions:

Q: 1
Which of the following database models is simply a collection of objects related by an object that has certain characteristics?
A. Enterprise Model
B. Network Model
C. Hierarchal Model
D. Object Oriented Model
Answer: D
Explanation: The object oriented model is essentially a collection of objects, related by encapsulation (an object such as a patient has certain characteristics) or inheritance (an object such as a resident inherits characteristics from a physician object). There is no primary key in this
model. Answer: C is incorrect. Hierarchal model is incorrect as this database model uses the format of a typical parent-child arrangement, whereas, one piece of information can have many subordinated pieces. Answer: B is incorrect. Network model is incorrect as this model is designed to allow the child to have more than one parent. This model is often referred to as the many to many model. Answer: A is incorrect. Enterprise model is meant as a distractor, the enterprise database model does not exist.

Q: 2
Which of the following traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote host?
A. Helix
D. Netstat
Answer: C
Explanation: TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote host. The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer's name or IP address.
It is used to detect and resolve network connection problems. Answer: B is incorrect. PATHPING is a command-line utility that pings each hop along the route for a set period of time and shows the delay and packet loss along with the tracing functionality of TRACERT, which helps determine a weak link in the path.

Q: 3
According to HIPAA, how long must a medical practice retain a patient's medical records?
A. ten years
B. five years
C. three years
D. HIPAA does not mandate how long.
Answer: D
Explanation: HIPAA's privacy rule applies to the complete period of record retention and disposal, but does not stipulate how long records must be kept. Answer: B, A, and C are incorrect. HIPAA doesn't set any standard for how long records must be retained, only how those records are treated to protect PHI.

Q: 4
Which of the following portable computer systems is used by smart phones for offering advanced OS capabilities? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
C. Tablet PC
E. laptop
Answer: D
Explanation: PDA stands for personal digital assistant and it is also known as a palmtop computer or handheld computer. It is a mobile device, which functions as a personal information manager and connects to the Internet. Smartphone uses PDA for offering advanced OS capabilities. The PDA has an electronic visual display enabling it to include a Web browser, but some newer models also have audio capabilities, enabling them to be used as mobile phones or portable media players. Many PDAs can access the Internet, intranets or extranets via Wi-Fi, or Wireless Wide Area Networks. The typical features of a PDA are as follows: 1.Touch screen 2.Memory cards 3.Wired connectivity 4.Wireless connectivity 5.Synchronization Answer: C is incorrect. A Tablet PC refers to a fully functional laptop PC, equipped with a stylus. Tablet PCs are personal computers where the owner is free to install any compatible application or operating system. Answer: E is incorrect. A laptop is a type of portable computer. It is designed for mobile use and small and light enough to sit on a person's lap while in use. It integrates most of the typical components of a desktop computer, including a display, a keyboard, a pointing device (touchpad or trackpad, pointing stick), speakers, and often including a battery, into a single small and light unit. Answer: A is incorrect. Single-board computers (SBCs) are complete computers built on a single circuit board. The design is centered on a single or dual microprocessor with
RAM, IO and all other features needed to be a functional computer on one board. Answer: B is incorrect. Small form factor computers are those computers that are generally designed to support the same features as modern desktop computers, but in a smaller space. Most accept standard x86 microprocessors, standard DIMM memory modules, standard 3.5 inch hard disks, and standard 5.25 inch optical drives. SFF computers can be far smaller than typical desktop computers. They are often used in space-limited areas where normal computers cannot be placed.

Q: 5
You work in a healthcare clinic that has many patients that receive benefits from a state program that helps low-income families with the costs of healthcare. You have to work with the state office to check on the design and deployment of healthcare information systems that can help check eligibility policies and deploy electronic health records in treatment and billing. What is one of the names of this kind of program?
A. Medicare
B. Medicaid
C. Tricare
Answer: B
Explanation: Monitored on the federal level but implemented by individual states, the Medicaid program pays for healthcare for low-income individuals and families that fit into an eligibility group (often based on age, pregnancy, disabilities, income, etc.). The federal Centers of Medicare and Medicaid Services is working with states to implement best practices in technology design and deployment, promote innovation and diffuse promising new technology solutions across the nation, reduce long cycle times for systems implementation, and improve system reliability and performance. Answer: A is incorrect. Medicare is a federal insurance program administered nationwide by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, a part of the Department of Health
and Human Services. Medicare is for people over the age of 65, or who have certain disabilities.
Answer: C is incorrect. Tricare is a medical insurance program for active duty members of the US military. Answer: D is incorrect. FEHB is the Federal Employee Health Benefits Program for federal employees, retirees and their families.

Q: 6
Which of the following commands can verify connectivity between two computers? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
Answer: B,D
Explanation: TRACERT and PING commands can verify connectivity between two computers. TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote host. The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer's name or IP address. It is used to detect and resolve network connection problems. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On receiving the packets, the destination host responds with a series of replies. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. Answer: C is incorrect. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration, such as the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, etc. of a networked computer. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. Answer: A is incorrect. NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems.
It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt. This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues, verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone, and debugging other server-related problems. This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel.

Q: 7
Which of the following is the most secure among the following encryption algorithms?
B. RC4
Answer: C
Explanation: AES encryption is the most secure among DES, 3DES, and RC4 encryptions. The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is an encryption standard that comprises three block ciphers, AES-128, AES-192, and AES-256, adopted from a larger collection originally published as Rijndael. Each AES cipher has a 128-bit block size, with key sizes of 128, 192, and 256 bits, respectively. The AES ciphers have been analyzed extensively and are now used worldwide, as was the case with its predecessor, the Data Encryption Standard (DES). AES is one of the most popular algorithms used in symmetric key cryptography. It is available in many different encryption packages. AES is the first publicly accessible and open cipher approved by the NSA for top secret information. Answer: A, B, D are incorrect. DES, 3DES, and RC4 encryptions are weaker than the AES encryption.

Q: 8
This group can apply for incentive payments for the adaption, implementation, upgrading and/or meaningful use of certified electronic health record technology, due to provisions of the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act of 2009. Each correct answern represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Hospitals
B. Patients
C. Healthcare Clearinghouse
D. Eligible providers
Answer: A,D
Explanation: Eligible providers including healthcare professionals like physicians, dentists, and therapists as well as hospitals, clinics and other care facilities can apply for incentive payments under the HITECH Act providing that they can demonstrate that they have adopted certified
electronic health record technology (EHR), are upgrading their technology, have recently implemented new technology or are engaged in the meaningful use of EHR technology in a manner to improve the quality of healthcare. Answer: B is incorrect. Patients are not considered eligible providers of health care and would not be eligible to recent incentive payments for the adoption of electronic health record technology. Answer: C is incorrect. A healthcare clearinghouse is a business that processes healthcare claims between healthcare providers and group health insurance plans. They are not a provider of healthcare and therefore would not be eligible to receive healthcare benefits for the adoption or use of electronic health records.

Q: 9
Which of the following types of health insurance allows the patient to direct his/her own care?
B. Indemnity Plan
C. Point of Service
Answer: B
Explanation: An indemnity plan allows you to visit any doctor, any hospital and direct your own care. Answer: A is incorrect. HMO is incorrect as this offers healthcare services for a prepaid fixed amount of reimbursement. In an HMO, providers and subscribers voluntarily enroll and the HMO assumes responsibility and financial risks. Answer: D is incorrect. PPO is incorrect as this is a network of physicians or healthcare organizations that provide healthcare at a discounted rate in return for higher patient volume. Answer: C is incorrect. Point of Service (POS) is an agreement where a patient is permitted to choose a provider each time healthcare service is required.

Q: 10
You are hired by an Office Manager at a branch of a home health care service company to help install software for client scheduling, billing and insurance coding and payroll preparation. The office manager is impressed with your work and recommends your work to the next level of
administration within the organization. What position might that be? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Board of Directors
B. Billing Coordinator
C. Staffing Coordinator
D. President
Answer: B,C
Explanation: Most likely, a home health care organization would have a layer of middle management such as a Billing and/or a staffing coordinator that might take a system like you installed with your Office Manager and expand that across the company to other offices. Answer:
D is incorrect. Unless it is a very small home health care company (which can happen), it is unlikely that the Office Manager would speak directly to the president of the organization. Answer: A is incorrect. It is unlikely that a home health care company would have a Board of Directors active in the day-to-day administration of the company.

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