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Cisco 642-513 Exam -

Free 642-513 Sample Questions:

1. For which layers of the OSI reference model does CSA enforce security?
A. Layer 1 through Layer 4
B. Layer 1 through Layer 7
C. Layer 2 through Layer 4
D. Layer 3 through Layer 7

2. Cisco Security Agent provides Day Zero attack prevention by using which of these methods?
A. using signatures to enforce security policies
B. using API control to enforce security policies
C. using stateful packet filtering to enforce security policies
D. using algorithms that compare application calls for system resources to the security policies

3. Which one of the five phases of an attack attempts to become resident on a target?
A. probe phase
B. penetrate phase
C. persist phase
D. propagate phase
E. paralyze phase

4. Which two attacks could an attacker use during the probe phase of an attack? (Choose two.)
A. buffer overflow
B. install new code
C. ping scans
D. erase files
E. port scans
Answer:C, E

5. Which two attacks could an attacker use during the penetrate phase of an attack? (Choose two.)
A. install new code
B. modify configuration
C. ping scans
D. buffer overflow
E. erase files
F. e­mail attachment
Answer:D, F

6. Which attack could an attacker use during the propagate phase of an attack?
A. ping scans
B. crash systems
C. attack other targets
D. erase files
E. steal data

7. Which three operating systems are supported for deployment of CSA? (Choose three.)
A. OS2
C. Linux
D. Solaris
F. Windows
Answer:C, D, F

8. Which protocol is required for the administrative workstation to communicate with the CSA MC?
B. Telnet
D. IPSec

9. Which application loads when installing the CSA MC to run the local database?
A. Microsoft Access
B. Microsoft SQL Server Desktop Engine
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Oracle

10. What application is installed on the server after the CSA MC is installed?
A. Cisco Trust Agent

11. What are the three CSA MC administrator roles? (Choose three.)
A. access
B. Configure
C. deploy
D. view
E. monitor
F. administer
Answer:B, C, E

12. Which protocol should never be disabled on the CSA MC?
B. Telnet
C. IPSec

13. Which port is used to access the CSA MC from the administrative workstation?
A. 21
B. 23
C. 1741
D. 1802

14. Which of these is a reason for using groups to administer Agents?
A. to link similar devices together
B. to complete configuration changes on groups instead of hosts
C. to complete the same configuration on like items
D. to apply the same policy to hosts with similar security requirements

15. How can the Agent kit be sent out to host machines?
A. via a URL that is e­mailed to clients
B. via a TFTP server
C. via an FTP server
D. via a Telnet server

16. Which type of privileges must you have on a host system to install CSA?
A. superuser
B. administrator
C. user
D. viewer

17. Which view within the CSA MC allows users to see a continuously refreshed view of the most recently logged event records?
A. Event Log
B. Event Monitor
C. Event Sets
D. Event Alerts

18. Which view within the CSA MC allows users to see a view of event records based on filtering criteria such astime and severity?
A. Event Summary
B. Event Log
C. Event Monitor
D. Event Sets
E. Event Alerts

19. Which view within the CSA MC allows users to see overall system status information, including a summary of recorded events, agent configuration, and activity?
A. Status Summary
B. Event Log
C. Event Monitor
D. Event Sets
E. Alerts

20. Which definitions can be used to allow consistent configuration of policies across multiple systems and canalso be used for event reporting purposes?
A. hosts
B. software updates
C. Agent kits
D. registration control
E. groups

21. Which three make up the CSA architecture model? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Trust Agent
B. Cisco Security Agent
C. Cisco Security Agent Management Center
D. Cisco Intrusion Prevention System
E. an administrative workstation
F. a syslog server
Answer:B, C, E

22. Which Agent kit should be installed on the CSA MC?
A. the default Windows Agent kit
B. the default UNIX Agent kit
C. the default CSAAgent kit
D. the Agent kit that is automatically installed

23. What is the purpose of the Audit Trail function?
A. to generate a report listing events matching certain criteria, sorted by event severity
B. to generate a report listing events matching certain criteria, sorted by group
C. to generate a report showing detailed information for selected groups
D. to display a detailed history of configuration changes

24. Which action do you take when you are ready to deploy your CSA configuration to systems?
A. select
B. clone
C. deploy
D. generate rules

25. When a rule is cloned, which part of the rule is not cloned?
A. sets
B. rule modules
C. hosts
D. variables

26. What is the purpose of the Compare tool?
A. to save data that has been configured
B. to compare individual rules
C. to compare individual rule modules
D. to compare and merge configurations

27. Which three items make up rules? (Choose three.)
A. variables
B. applications
C. application classes
D. rule modules
E. policies
F. actions
Answer:A, C, F

28. Which two items make up Agent kits? (Choose two.)
A. groups
B. hosts
C. policies
D. rules
E. network shim
Answer:A, E

29. What action must happen before a system that has CSA can download policies configured for it?
A. The system must be rebooted.
B. The system must install Agent kits.
C. The system must be polled by the CSA MC.
D. The system must register with the CSA MC.

30. What is a benefit of putting hosts into groups?
A. There is no need to configure rules.
B. There is no need to configure rule modules.
C. The administrator can deploy rules in test mode.
D. The administrator does not have to deploy rules in test mode.

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