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Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-100 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 4A0-100 Sample Questions:

1 What is the network layer responsible for?
A. Providing the physical address to the packet.
B. Determining the path to the remote host.
C. Providing reliable communications from host to host.
D. Formatting the PDU.
Answer: B

2 Which of the following are basic router functions? (Choose two.)
A. Perform a Layer 2 header lookup
B. Broadcast a Layer 2 packet to all the interfaces.
C. IP header examination.
D. Determine the best path to the destination.
Answer: C, D

3 Which ATM adaptation layer is usually used for transporting IP datagrams?
A. AAL1
B. AAL2
C. AAL 3
D. AAL 5
Answer: D

4 Which of the following are data rates defined for Ethernet operation over copper and fiber optic cabling? (Choose three.)
A. 1 Mbps
B. 10 Mbps
C. 1000 Mbps
D. 10,000 Mbps
Answer: B, C, D

5 An Ethernet switch receives a frame addressed to an unknown destination. Assuming the frame is error-free, what will the switch do with the frame?
A. hold it in a buffer until it learns the port on which the destination is located
B. flood the frame out all ports except the source port
C. filter the frame and restrict it only to the source port
D. age out the source address forwarding table entry
Answer: B

6 How does collision detection operate in the CSMA/CD algorithm?
A. It allows multiple hosts to exchange data simultaneously on the same medium
B. It allows multiple hosts to share the same medium by ensuring that only one host can transmit at a time
C. Detects collisions on a full-duplex link
D. A host will only transmit upon receipt of the token
Answer: B

7 The Media Access Control (MAC) sub-layer is responsible for which two functions? (Choose two.)
A. directly interface with the transport layer
B. link integrity testing
C. physical addressing
D. data transmission synchronization
Answer: C, D

8 What is the purpose of carrier sense in the CSMA/CD algorithm?
A. To ensure the host is able to detect an operational physical link before transmitting.
B. The host is able to detect the transmission speed of the Ethernet switch port to which the host is connected
C. The host will only transmit data when it detects that no other devices are transmitting
D. The host will only transmit upon a timer expiry
Answer: C

9 Which statement best describes a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) root bridge/switch?
A. it is the switch on the network with the lowest bridge priority value
B. it is the switch with the highest numeric Media Access Control (MAC) address
C. it is the only switch on the network through which traffic flows
D. it is responsible for removing duplicate frames from the network
Answer: A

10 An Ethernet switch with redundant links has the following entries in its Forwarding Data Base (FDB):
MAC Address    Port
-------------------  --------
00:60:AC:1F:E0:11  1
00:F0:DE:12:3C:87  2
It receives on port 2 a frame with the source Media Access Control (MAC) address 00:60:AC:1F:E0:11, and destination address 00:F0:DE:12:3C:87. What will the switch change in its FDB?
A. it will remove the previous entry for MAC 00:F0:DE:12:3C:87 and replace it with a new one mapping this address to port 1
B. it will set a timer on the previous entry for MAC 00:60:AC:1F:E0:11 and create a new entry mapping this address to port 2
C. replace the previous entry for MAC 00:60:AC:1F:E0:11 with a new one mapping this address to port 2
D. it will create a new entry for MAC address 00:60:AC:1F:E0:11 mapping this address to port 2 and a new entry for MAC address 00:F0:DE:12:3C:87 mapping this address to port 1
Answer: C

11 An 12-port Ethernet switch running the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) can have how many root ports?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 12
Answer: A

12 When a Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) switch receives a topology change Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU), how does it propagate this information through the network?
A. it sends it directly to the root switch
B. it floods it throughout the network
C. it forwards it hop-by-hop through the network
D. it forwards it only through its root port
E. it processes the topology change but does not propagate the BPDU
Answer: B

13 Using Q-in-Q Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) stacking, how does a carrier differentiate one customer's traffic from that of another?
A. the provider edge (PE) switch adds an additional field called a PE tag to the customer's Layer 2 data
B. the PE switch replaces the customer's VLAN tag with a carrier-assigned tag
C. the PE switch adds a second VLAN tag to identify the customer's traffic on the carrier's network
D. the PE switch assigns a customer-specific priority label to the customer's traffic
Answer: C

14 An Ethernet switch is configured to support 4 Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs). They are configured as follows:
VLAN  Port
------- ------
101   1
101   2
102   3
102   4
103   5
103   6
104   7
104   8
The switch receives a broadcast frame on port 7. Which VLAN members will receive this broadcast frame?
A. none
B. 104
C. 103 and 104
D. 101, 102, 103, and 104
Answer: B

15 Which two 7750SR Service Router physical access methods are used to perform Out of Band (OOB) management? (Choose two.)
A. console port
B. management Ethernet port
C. access ports
D. network ports
Answer: A, B

16 Changing which part of the 7750SR basic configuration also changes the command prompt?
A. default admin password
B. system name
C. hostname
D. admin user name
Answer: B

17 What is NOT a task of the boot options file?
A. Set the CPM Ethernet port speed.
B. Create an IP address for the CPM Ethernet port
C. Set the console port speed
D. Set the date/time for the system
Answer: D

18 The 201.148.26.0 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets and host addresses will you obtain with this mask?
A. 4 subnets, 64 hosts
B. 64 subnets, 4 hosts
C. 4 subnets, 62 hosts
D. 6 subnets, 30 hosts
Answer: C

19 What bit pattern identifies the network address in the subnet mask?
A. a string of 1 in the host portion
B. a string of 0 in the host portion
C. a string of 1 in the network portion
D. a string of 0 in the network portion
Answer: C

20 Which of the following is an example of a valid host address?
A. 172.16.224.255/18
B. 255.255.255.255
C. 224.1.2.1
D. 192.168.24.59/30
Answer: A

21 Given the following:
Network address: 190.160.0.0
Network prefix: /19
What are the network and broadcast addresses for the third subnetwork? (Choose two.)
A. 190.160.64.0
B. 190.160.64.255
C. 190.160.95.255
D. 190.160.96.0
Answer: A, C

22 Why don't classful routing protocols use the first and last subnetworks?
A. classful routing protocols don't work with binary numbers
B. classful routing protocols only recognize Class C addresses
C. classful routing protocols do not pass routing information to their neighbors
D. classful routing protocols confuse the base network and the all 0 subnet
Answer: D

23 How does Internet Protocol (IP) addressing create a hierarchical network?
A. all hosts on all networks must have unique host numbers
B. IP addresses identify a host and the network on which it resides
C. clients are assigned 32-bit addresses and servers 64-bit addresses
D. routers, switches and hosts addresses are drawn from unique address classes
Answer: B

24 Given a network address of 116.14.0.0, which of the following is a valid host address when using the subnet mask 255.255.255.240?
A. 116.14.17.16
B. 116.14.17.31
C. 116.14.17.192
D. 116.14.17.189
Answer: D

25 Which three of the following are important considerations when designing subnets? (Choose three.)
A. number of subnetworks currently required
B. type of physical connectivity used by each segment
C. future network growth requirements
D. number of hosts each subnetwork will support
Answer: A, C, D

26 You have a class B network with a 255.255.255.0 mask. Which of the following are true of this network? (Select two)
A. There are 256 usable subnets
B. There are 50 usable subnets
C. There are 254 usable host addresses for each subnet
D. There is one usable subnet
Answer: A, C

27 Given the following:
Network address: 208.40.224.0
Network prefix: /28
What is the address range, including the network (all 0) and broadcast (all 1) addresses, for the fourth sub-network?
A. 208.40.224.0 ?208.40.224.255
B. 208.40.4.0 ?208.40.4.255
C. 208.40.224.16 ?208.40.224.31
D. 208.40.224.48 ?208.40.224.63
Answer: D

28 You want to integrate a new network into an existing IP Wide Area Network. The current network configuration is as follows:
Network address: 208.40.224.0
Network prefix: /27
Number of subnetworks: 6
If Variable Length Subnet Masking (VLSM) is used, what prefix is required to support an additional 7-host LAN segment?
A. /24
B. /27
C. /28
D. /29
E. /30
Answer: C

29 Represent the following address in Classless Interdomain Routing (CIDR) notation:
Network address: 150.220.64.0
Network mask: 255.255.192.0
A. 150.220.64.0/16
B. 150.220.0.0/17
C. 150.220.64.0/18
D. 150.220.0.0/18
Answer: C

30 You have been assigned the CIDR block of 116.65.4.0/22. Which of the following IP addresses could you use as a host? Choose all that apply
A. 116.65.8.32
B. 116.65.7.64
C. 116.65.6.255
D. 116.65.3.255
Answer: B, C


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