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Polycom 1K0-001 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 1K0-001 Sample Questions:

1. What correctly describes the term "half duplex" as it refers to audio in a videoconference?
A. Only one site of a conference is heard at any given time.
B. Only one person at a time is heard speaking from any given room.
C. Only one site of a conference is allowed to speak at any given time.
D. Only one person at a time is allowed to speak in a given room attending a conference.
Answer: A

2. Which device connects to mic-level input?
A. an amplifier
B. a microphone
C. an audio mixer
D. a sound pressure meter
Answer: B

3. Which describes frequency response?
A. The ability to determine frequency content of a signal.
B. The ability of a device to respond to amplitude changes.
C. The ability of a circuit to define operating frequency limits.
D. The ability of a device to operate within defined frequency limits.
Answer: D

4. Which describe the role room acoustics play regarding acoustic echo cancellation? (Select 2 answers.)
A. People moving around in a room change the acoustic paths presented to a microphone.
B. Fans, heaters, and air conditioners add background noise to the room, changing the room acoustic paths.
C. Hard room surfaces act as reflectors for sound, causing multiple acoustic paths from loudspeaker to microphone.
D. Heavy drapes and acoustic absorbers remove acoustic paths and therefore cause problems for acoustic echo cancellers.
Answer: AC

5. Which describe training as it applies to Acoustic Echo Cancellers (AEC)? (Select 2 answers.)
A. Training occurs regardless of the events occurring in a given room.
B. Training is independent of room audio components and gain settings.
C. Training is the process by which an AEC adapts to the room acoustic system.
D. Training can be accomplished through an explicit process such as white noise or pink noise.
Answer: CD

6. Which correctly describes reverberation and echo? (Select 2 answers.)
A. Echo is a coherent, distinct carry-on of sound.
B. Reverberation is irrelevant to conferencing audio.
C. Reverberation is long, distinct acoustic reflections.
D. Reverberation is an incoherent, diffuse carry-on of sound.
E. Echo is short, diffuse acoustic reflections that linger after the original sound has stopped.
Answer: AD

7. What does Automatic Gain Control (AGC) do? (Select 2 answers.)
A. It turns up the volume to the far-end.
B. It selects among multiple microphones.
C. It turns down the volume to the far-end.
D. It builds the volume to the near-end microphone.
Answer: AC

8. What correctly describes echo as it relates to acoustic echo cancellations?
A. The sound one hears when the far-end is talking and one tries to talk at the same time.
B. The sound of the room reverberation as picked up by the local microphones, amplified and returned to the far-end.
C. The result of sound bouncing off the walls in the room caused by the person speaking in that room being picked up by the microphones.
D. The sound of the far-end being returned to themselves, caused by the room microphones picking up the audio from the room loudspeakers.
Answer: D

9. What allows you to detect audio distortion? (Select 2 answers.)
A. audible sound quality
B. measured audio signal level
C. measured background noise level
D. digital signal processor clock level
Answer: AB

10. How is noise measured? (Select 2 answers.)
A. by volume
B. by distance
C. by amplitude
D. by impedance
Answer: AC

11. Which describe sub-band and wideband Acoustic Echo Cancellers (AECs)? (Select 3 answers.)
A. Wideband AECs treat the audio as one continuous segment.
B. Sub-band AECs treat the audio as a single 3.1 kHz segment.
C. Wideband AECs require additional processing to reduce echo artifacts.
D. Sub-band AECs divide the audio into small segments and process each segment independently.
Answer: ACD

12. How many bits make up frames in T1 framing?
A. 180
B. 193
C. 248
D. 251
Answer: B

13. What are line coding techniques for T1? (Select 2 answers.)
A. D4
B. ESF
C. AMI
D. SFW
E. B8ZS
Answer: CE

14. Synchronous uses clocks to provide __________.
A. timing for RTS
B. timing for DTR
C. timing from the network to the DTE
D. timing from the DCD to the DTR
Answer: C

15. What is a Digital Service Unit (DSU) used for?
A. to connect to a BRI
B. to connect the D channel
C. to connect to a 64 Kbps or lower circuit
D. to connect one modem to another modem
Answer: C

16. How many bits make up frames in E1 framing?
A. 20
B. 240
C. 256
D. 762
Answer: C

17. Which test equipment is used to monitor the Q.931 messages?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Distortion analyzer
C. QPSK transmission analyzer
D. Bit Error Rate Test (BERT) set
Answer: A

18. What is true of bonding?
A. It combines multiple D channels into one B channel.
B. It combines multiple B channels into one D channel.
C. It subdivides/recombines wideband signals to pass over the switched network as multiple channels.
D. It subdivides/recombines wideband signals to pass over the switched network.
Answer: C

19. Which TCP/IP stack task handles video/audio conferencing frames?
A. File Transfer Protocol
B. User Datagram Protocol
C. Trivial File Transfer Protocol
D. Address Resolution Protocol
E. Simple Network Management Protocol
Answer: B

20. Which describes the ISDN BRI interface channel structure and bandwidth?
A. 2B, (2 x 32k bearer channels), 64 Kbps
B. 2B, (2 x 64k bearer channels), 128 Kbps
C. 2B+D, (2 x 64k bearer data channels and 1 16k D signaling channel), 144 Kbps
D. 2B+D, (2 x 64k bearer data channels and 1 64k D signaling channel), 128 Kbps
Answer: C

21. What is a use of a Service Profile Identifier (SPID)?
A. It is used to identify the C.O. switch type.
B. It is used to identify the proper D channel.
C. It is used for identification when multiple devices are on one ISDN line.
D. It is used for identification when multiple devices are on 2 ISDN lines.
Answer: C

22. What is the function of a terminal adapter?
A. It allows ISDN devices to communicate with an ISDN network.
B. It allows ISDN devices to communicate with non-ISDN networks.
C. It allows non-ISDN devices to communicate with an ISDN network.
D. It allows for the conversion of 4-wire switched signaling to an ISDN network.
Answer: C

23. Which are European ISDN switch protocols? (Select 3 answers.)
A. NI1
B. VN3
C. 1TR6
D. ETS300
E. TPH1926
Answer: BCD

24. When a network is providing a clock, what should the Data Communications Equipment (DCE) be set for?
A. DTE timing
B. Master timing
C. Internal timing
D. Recovered timing
Answer: D

25. Which protocols are defined in the ITU/TSS Recommendation Q.931?
A. the parameters of the ISDN B channel
B. ISDN switch provisioning information
C. the basic layout of the 7 layer protocol stack
D. the basic layer 3 call control over the ISDN D channel
Answer: D

26. Which ISDN protocol requires you to specify the switch type?
A. NET3
B. DMS
C. 5ESS
D. Custom
Answer: D

27. How can multiplexing be performed? (Select 3 answers.)
A. by session
B. by network
C. by statistical
D. by performance
E. by time division
F. by frequency division
Answer: CEF

28. What is needed to connect a terminal to an X.25 network?
A. NT1
B. X.25 interface board
C. V.25 interface board
D. Packet Assembler/Disassembler
Answer: D

29. What is the purpose of NFAS?
A. It allows up to six spans to be controlled by NI1.
B. It allows up to six spans to be controlled by one D channel.
C. It allows up to eight PRIs to be managed by one D channel.
D. It allows up to eight PRIs to be managed by amplitude pulsing.
Answer: C

30. What are the major components of a public-switched telephone network? (Select 4 answers.)
A. DDS
B. ISDN
C. local loop
D. switching system
E. station equipment
F. interoffice facilities
Answer: CDEF


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